Test ID: TOFL-1 نموذج الاجابات عودة لمركز اختبارات التوفل عودة لمركز الاختبارات
title أختبار توفل تجريبي - TOFEL TEST العنوان
Tips هذا الاختبار نسخة مطابقة اسلوبا ومضمونا لاختبار التوفل والفرق الوحيد انك نهاية الاختبار ستحصل على نتيجة نسبية ما بين 0 -ى 100 ملاحظات
Instructions اتبع التعليمات واقرائها بتركيز من بداية الاختبار الى نهايته و تذكر انه لا يسمح لك بالكتابة او اخذ اي ملاحظات تعليمات
الملاحظات و الإستفسارات حول المركز موضوع مناقشة الإختبار و التدريبات الإضافية

The beginning of the test بداية اختبار التوفل

قم بتشغيل الملف الصوتي واتبع التعليمات للاجابة على الاسئلة
من 1 الى 30

In this section of the test , you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversation and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test, when you take the actual TOEFL test you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book try to work on this model test in the same way .

 

Part A

Directions: In part A , you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversation and questions will not be repeated, after you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then , on your answer  sheet , find the number of the question and fill in the space that correspond to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

 

1.
A– Car repairs should be done at a garage.
B– The price was not too high
C– The garage took advantage of the woman
D– The car had serious problems

2.
A– Have a party
B– Attend the International Students’ Association
C– Go to work
D– Get some rest

 

3.
A– Leave immediately
B– Watch the game on TV
C– Start to play
D– Eat a sandwich


4.
A– He went to See the foreign student advisor
B– He went to Washington
C– He wrote to the Passport Office
D– He reported it to the Passport Office


5.
A– It is the policy of the bank
B– The man was not helpful at all
C– Her account at the bank is in order
D– The cheek should be cashed


6.
A– Ask DR. Tyler to clarify the assignment
B– Show a preliminary version to DR. Tyler
C– Let her see the first draft before DR. Tyler see it
D– Talk to some of the other students in DR. Tyler’s class


7.
A– DR. Clark is a good teacher
B– Statistics is a boring class
C– Two semesters of statistics are required
D– The students do not like DR. Clark


8.
A– He cannot do them
B– They are finished
C– It will be a difficult job.
D– they will be ready Saturday afternoon


9.
A– A concert
B– An art museum
C– A flower shop
D– A restaurant


10.
A– He is at lunch
B– He is at the office
C– He is in class
D– He is at home


11.
A– Take the ten O'clock bus
B– Come back in five minutes
C– Go to New York another day
D– Call the airport


12.
A– a teacher
B– a textbook
C– An assignment
D– A movie


13.
A– Make corrections on the original
B– Make copies
C– Deliver the copies to Mr Brown.
D– Find the original


14.
A– She was sally Harrison's cousin
B– She was sally Harrison’s sister
C– She was sally Harrison's friend
D– She was sally Harrison


15.
A– The desk drawer won’t open
B– The pen is out of ink
C– She cannot find her pen
D– She is angry with the man.


16.
A– john is usually late
B– John will be there at eight-thirty
– John will not show up
D– John is usually on time


17.
A– She does not agree with the man
B– She needs a larger home
C– She regrets the cost of their vacation
D– She thinks that houses are very expensive


18.
A– He did not make a presentation.
B– He got confused during the presentation
C– He should have spoken more loudly
D– He did a very complete job


19.
A– He has decided not to mail the invitations.
B– He want to get Janet’s opinion.
C– He is waiting for Janet to answer the phone.
D– He does not want to invite Janet.


20.
A– The baby is asleep.
B– The baby is very active.
C– The baby is not staying with the woman.
D– The baby is just about to start walking.


21.
A– The results of the test are not available.
B– The experiment had unexpected results.
C– He has not completed the experiment yet.
D– It is taking a lot of time to do the experiment.


22.
A– She does not put much effort in her studies.
B– She is very likable.
C– She prefers talking to the woman.
D– She has a telephone.


23.
A– See the doctor.
B– Get another job.
C– Go to the counter.
D– Buy some medicine.


24.
A– She will try her best.
B– She has to save her money.
C– She is still undecided.
D– She needs an application.


25.
A– She is glad to meet Robert.
B– She is surprised to hear from Robert.
C– She does not enjoy talking with Robert.
D– She was ready to call Robert.


26.
A– The man must stop working.
B– There is a little more time.
C– The test is important.
D– It is time for the test.


27.
A– The woman’s roommate took a different class.
B– The book is very expensive.
C– The textbook may have been changed.
D– The course is not offered this semester.


28.
A– Sally may get a bike for Christmas.
B– Sally already has a bike like that one.
C– Sally likes riding a bike.
D– Sally may prefer a different gift.


29.
A– He does not want to give Carol a ride.
B– He does not have a car.
C– He cannot hear well.
D– He does not know Carol.

 

قم بتشغيل الملف الصوتي واتبع التعليمات للاجابة على الاسئلة
من 30 الى 3
8

Part B

Directions: In this part of the test , you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation , you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question , read the four possible answer in your book and choose the best answer.

Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test pages.

 


30.
A– Take a break
B– Go to work.
C– Do the other problems.
D– Keep trying.


31.
A– Whether to introduce the metric system in the United States.
B– How the metric system should be introduced in the United State.
C– Which system is better—the English system or the metric system.
D– How to convert measurement from the English system to the metric system


32.
A– Now the weather on radio and TV is reported exclusively in metrics reported exclusively metrics.
B– Road signs have miles marked on them , but not kilometres.
C– Both the English system and the metric system are being used on sign, packages, and weather reports.
D– Grocery stores use only metrics for their packaging.


33.
A– He though that a gradual adoption would be better for everyone.
B– He thought that only metric should be used.
C– He though that only the English system should be used.
D– He thought that adult should use both system , but that children should be taught only the metric system.


34.
A– Unfriendly.
B– Patronizing.
C– Uninterested.
D– Cooperative.


35.
A– To change his travel planes.
B– To arrange a time to pick up his tickets.
C– To reserve a hotel room.
D– To make a plane reservation.


36.
A– The man can save money by staying an extra night.
B– The man should have called earlier.
C– She needs the man to come into the office.
D– She will mail the tickets to the man.


37.
A– Travel on May 19 as planned.
B– Wait for a cheaper fare.
C– Stay an extra day in Atlanta.
D– Return on Sunday.


38.
A– Go back to his hotel.
B– Pack his suitcase.
C– Call a different travel agent.
D– Go to the travel agent’s office in the afternoon.

 

 

قم بتشغيل الملف الصوتي واتبع التعليمات للاجابة على الاسئلة
من 39 الى 50

Part C

Directions: In this part of the test , you will hear several short talks . After each talk , you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question , read the four possible answer in your book and choose the best answer.

 

39.
A– Private industry.
B– Advances in medicine.
C– Space missions.
D– Technological developments.


40.
A– Contact tenses.
B– cordless tools.
C– Food packaging.
D– Ultrasound.


41.
A– To monitor the condition of astronauts in spacecraft.
B– to evaluate candidates who wanted to join the space program.
C– To check the health of astronauts when they returned from space.
D– To test spacecraft and equipment for imperfections.


42.
A– Archaeologists and astronauts were compared.
B– Astronauts made photographs of the Earth later used by archaeologists.
C– Archaeologists have used advances in medical technology developed for astronauts.
D– Space missions and underwater missions are very similar.


43.
A– Transportations on the Pacific Coast.
B– History of California.
C– Orientation to San Francisco.
D– Specifications of the Golden Gate Bridge.


44.
A– Golden Gate.
B– San Francisco de Asis Mission.
C– Military Post Seventy-six
D– Yerba Buena.


45.
A– Gold was discovered.
B– The Transcontinental Railroad was completed.
C– The Golden Gate Bridge was constructed.
D– Telegraph Communications were established with the East.


46.
A– Eighteen miles.
B– 938 feet.
C– One mile.
D– Between five and six miles.


47.
A- The term “essay”.
B– Prose writing.
C– Personal viewpoint.
D– Brainstorming.


48.
A– The work of Alexander Pope.
B– The difference between prose and poetry.
C– The general characteristics of essays.
D-The reasons that the phrase “personal essay” is redundant.


49.
A– It is usually short.
B– It can be either prose or poetry.
C– It expresses a personal point of view.
D– It discusses one topic.


50.
A– They will prepare for a quiz.
B– They will write their first essay.
C– They will read works by Pope.
D– They will review their notes.

 

THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION.

DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.

 

Section 2: Structure and Written Expression

40 questions 25 Minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two type of questions in this section , with special directions for each type

Structure

 

 

1. Based on the premise that light was composed of color, the Impressionists came to the conclusion ———— not really black.
A– which was that shadows
B– was shadows which
C– were shadows
D– that shadows were


2. ————— a parliamentary system, the prime minister must be appointed on the basis of the distribution of power in the parliament.
A– The considered
B– To be considered
C– Considering
D– Considers


3. . ————— of the play Mourning Becomes Electra introduces the cast of characters and hints at the plot.
A– The act first
B– Act one
C– Act First
D– First act


4. As soon as ———— with an acid, salt, and sometimes water, is formed.
A– a base will react
B– a base reacts
C– a base is reacting
D– the reaction of a base


5. The Internal Revenue Service ———— their tax forms by April 15 every year.
A– makes all Americans file
B– makes all Americans to file
C– makes the filing of all Americans
D– makes all Americans filing


6. Although one of his ships succeeded in sailing all the way back to Spain past the Cape of Good Hope, Magellan never completed the first circumnavigation of the world, and ——— .
A– most of his crew didn’t too
B– neither most of his crew did
C– nether did most of his crew
D– most of his crew didn’t also


7. To answer accurately is more important than —————.
A– a quick finish
B– to finish quickly
C– finishing quickly
D– you finish quickly


8. Weathering ——— the action whereby surface rock is disintegrated or decomposed.
A– it is
B– is that
C– is
D– being


9. A telephone recording tells callers ———.
A– what time the movie starts
B– what time starts the movie
C– what time does the movie start
D– the movie starts what time


10. The people of Western Canada have been considering ——— themselves from the rest of the provinces.
A– to separate
B– separated
C– separate
D– separating


11. It costs about sixty dollars to have a tooth ———.
A– filling
B– to fill
C– filled
D– separating.


12. Not until a student has mastered algebra ———— the principles of geometry, trigonometry, and physics.
A– he can begin to understand
B– can he begin to understand
C– he begins to understand
D– begins to understand


13. Although Margaret Mead several assistants during her long investigations of Samoa, the bulk of the research was done by ——— alone.
A– herself
B– she
C– her
D– hers


14. —— war correspondent, Hemingway used his experiences for some of his most powerful novels.
A– But a
B– It is a
C– While
D– A


15. Thirty-eight national sites are known as parks, another eighty-two as monuments, and ———.
A– the another one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites
B– the other one hundred seventy-eight as historical sites
C– Seventy-eight plus one hundred more as historical sites
D– as historical sites one hundred seventy-eight

 

Written Expression

Directions: In questions 16-40 , Each sentence has four underline words or phrases . The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) or (D). Identify the one underlined words or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.

 

16. Interest in automatic data processing has grown rapid since the first large calculators were introduced in 1950.
16. A– in
B– grown
C– Rapid
D– since

17. Vaslav Nijinsky achieved world recognition as both a dancer as well as a choreographer.
A– achieved
B– as
C– a dancer
D– as well as

18. Airports must be located near to major population centres for the advantage of air transportation to be retained.
A– be located
B– near to
C– air transportation
D– to be retained

19. It is said that Einstein felt very badly about the application of his theories to the creation of weapons of war.
A– It is said
B– very
C– badly
D– to


20. The plants that they belong to the family of ferns are quit varied in their size and structure.
A– they
B– belong to
C– are
D– their


21. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
A- Despite
B– still
C– prefer
D– travel


22. All of we students must have an identification card in order to check books out of the library.
A– we
B– have
C– out
D– of


23. Columbus Day is celebrated on the twelve of October because on that day in 1492, Christopher Columbus first landed in the Americas.
A– is celebrated
B– on
C– twelve
D– because


24. One of the most influence newspapers in the U.S. is the New York Times, which is widely distributed throughout the world.
A– the most
B– influence
C– is
D– widely distributed


25. An unexpected raise in the cost of living as well as a decline in employment opportunities resulted in the rapid creation by Congress of new government programs for the unemployed.
A– raise
B– as well as
C– resulted
D– rapid


26. It is imperative that a graduate student maintains a grade point average of “B” in his major field.
A– It is
B– maintains
C– of
D– his


27. Coastal and inland waters are inhabited not only by fish but also by such sea creature as shrimps and calm.
A- are inhabited
B– not only
C– such
D– sea creature


28. Economists have tried to discourage the use of the phrase “underdeveloped nation” and encouraging the more accurate phrase “developing nation” in order to suggest an on-going process.
A– to discourage
B– the use
C– encouraging
D– the more


29. A gas like propane will combination with water molecules in a saline solution to form a solid called a hydrate.
A like
B– combination
C– form
D– called


30. Although it cannot be proven, presumable expansion of the universe will slow down as it approaches a critical radius.
A– it
B– be proven
C– presumable
D– it approaches


31. Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for the student to practice speaking words.
A– Regardless
B– should be
C– to practice
D- speaking words


32. A city University professor reported that he discovers a vaccine that has been 80 percent effective in reading the instances of tooth decay among small children
A– discovers
B– that
C– in reducing
D– among


33. American baseball teams, once the only contenders for the world championship, are now being challenged by either Japanese teams and Venezuelan teams.
A– once
B– being
C– by
D– either


34. When they have been frightened, as, for example, by an electrical storm, dairy cows may refuse giving milk.
A– have been
B– frightened
C– by
D– giving


35. Miami, Florida is among the few cities in the United States that has been awarded official statues as bilingual municipalities.
A– among
B– that
C– has been awarded
D– as


36. No other quality is more important for a scientist to acquire as to observe carefully.
A– No other
B– for
C– as
D– carefully


37. After the police had tried unsuccessfully to determine to who the car belonged, they towed it in the station.
A– the police
B– unsuccessfully
C– who
D– it


38. Fertilizers are used primarily to enrich soil and increasing yield.
A– are used
B– primarily
C– soil
D– increasing


39. if the ozone gaze of the atmosphere did not filter out the ultraviolet rays of the sun, life as we know it would not have evolved on Earth.
A– did not filter out
B– as
C– it
D– on Earth


40. The regulation requires that everyone who holds a non-immigrant visa reports an address to the federal government in January of each year.
A– who
B– holds
C– reports
D– an

 

THIS IS THE END OF THE STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION SECTION

 

 

Section3: Reading Comprehension

50 Question 55 Minutes

Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer to each question.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage

 

Questions from 1 - 10
 

Precipitation, commonly referred to as rainfall, is a measure of the quantity of water in the form of either rain, hail, or snow which reaches the ground. The average annual precipitation over the whole of the United States is thirty-six inches. It should be understood however, that a foot of snow is not equal to a foot of precipitation A general formula for computing the precipitation of snowfall is that ten inches of snow is equal to one inch of precipitation. In New York State, for example, twenty inches of snow in one year would be recorded as only two inches of precipitation. Forty inches of rain would be recorded as forty inches of precipitation. The total annual precipitation would be recorded as forty-two inches.   The amount of precipitation is a combined result of several factors, including location, altitude , proximity to the sea, and the direction of prevailing winds. Most  of the precipitation in the United States is brought originally by prevailing winds from the Pacific Ocean, the Gulf of Mexico , the Atlantic Ocean, and the great Lakes Because these prevailing winds generally come from the West, the Pacific Coast receives more annual precipitation than the Atlantic Coast. Along the Pacific Coast itself, however , altitude causes some diversity in rain-fall The mountain ranges of the Untied States, especially the Rocky Mountain Range and the Appalachian Mountain Range, influence the amount of precipitation in their areas. East of the Rocky Mountains, the annual precipitation decreases substantially from the west of the Rocky Mountains, The precipitation north of the Appalachian Mountains is about 70 percent less than that south of the Appalachian Mountains.

 

 


1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A– Precipitation
B– Snowfall
C– New York State
D– A general formula


2. Which of the following is another word that is often used in place of precipitation ?
A– Humidity
B– Wetness
C– Rainfall
D– Rain-snow


3. The term precipitation includes
A– only rainfall
B– rain, hail, and snow
C– rain, snow, and humidity
D– rain, hail, and humidity


4. What is the average annual rainfall in inches in the United States ?
A– Thirty-six inches
B– Thirty-eight inches
C– Forty inches
D– Forty-two inches


5. If a state has 40 inches of snow in a year, by how much does this increase the annual precipitation ?
A– Thirty-six inches
B– Thirty-eight inches
C– Forty inches
D– Forty-two inches


6. The phrase “proximity to” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
A- communication with
B– dependence on
C– nearness to
D– similarity to


7. Where is the annual precipitation highest ?
A– the Atlantic Coast
B– The Great Lakes
C– The Gulf of Mexico
D– The Pacific Coast


8. Which of the following was Not mentioned as a factor in determining the amount of precipitation that an area will receive ?
A– Mountains
B– Latitude
C– The sea
D– Wind


9. The word “substantially” in line 17 could best be replaced by
A– fundamentally
B– slightly
C– completely
D– apparently


10. The word “that” in line 19 refers to
A– decrease
B– precipitation
C– areas
D– mountain ranges

Questions from 11 - 20
  Course numbers are an indication of which courses are open to various categories of students at the University Undergraduate courses with the numbers 100 or 200 are generally introductory courses appropriate for freshman or sophomores, whereas courses with the numbers 300 or 400 often have prerequisites and are open to juniors and seniors only Courses with the numbers 800 or above are open only to graduate students. Certain graduate courses , generally those devoted to introductory material, are numbered 400 for undergraduate students who qualify to take them and 600 for graduate students. Courses designed for students seeking a professional degree carry a 500 number for undergraduate students and a 700 number for graduate students Courses numbered 99 or below are special interest courses that do not carry academic credit If students elect to take a special interest course, it will not count toward the number of hours needed to complete graduation requirements.
A Full-time undergraduate student is expect to take courses that total twelve to eight-teen credit hours. A full-time graduate student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen credit hours. Students holding assistantships are expected to enrol for proportionately fewer hours. A part-time graduate student may register for a minimum of three credit hours. An overload, that is , more than the maximum number of hours, may be taken with the approval of an academic advisor To register for an overload, students must submit the appropriate approval from when registering. Overload above 24 hours will not be approved under any circumstances.

11. Where would this passage most likely be fond?
A– In a syllabus
B– In a college catalog
C– In an undergraduate course
D– In a graduate course


12. What is the purpose of the passage ?
A– To inform
B– To persuade
C– To criticize
D– To apologize


13. The word “prerequisites” in line 4 is closest in meaning to
A– courses required before enrolling
B– courses needed for graduation
C– courses that include additional charges
D– courses that do not carry academic credit


14. The word “those” in line 6 refers to
A– graduate students
B– graduate courses
C– introductory courses
D– course numbers


15. Which classification of students would be eligible to enrol in Mechanical Engineering 850 ?
A– A graduate student
B– A part-time student
C– A full-time student
D– An undergraduate student


16. If an undergraduate student uses the number 520 to register for an accounting course, what number would a graduate student probably use to register for the same course ?
A– Accounting 520
B– Accounting 620
C– Accounting 720
D– Accounting 820


17. How is a student who registers for eight credit hours classified ?
A- Full-time student
B– Graduate student
C– part-time student
D– Non-degree student


18. Which of the following courses would not be included in the list of courses for graduation?
A– English 90
B– English 100
C– English 300
D– English 400


19. A graduate student may NOT
A– enrol in a course numbered 610
B– register for only one-hour course
C– register for courses if he has an assistantship
D– enrol in an introductory course


20. The phrase “under any circumstances” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A—without cause
B– without permission
C– without exception
D– without a good reason

 

 

Questions from 21 - 30
  During the nineteenth century, women in the United States organized and participated in a large number of reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, and, most importantly, to free the slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social statues of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and abolitionists who supported the rights of both women and blacks. A umber off male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Philips, also supported the rights of women to speak and participate equally with men in antislavery activities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitions offered women a previously denied enter into politics. They become involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and the conditions of others.
When the Civil War ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constriction adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists influenced more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but eastern states resisted more stubbornly than before. A women’s suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878 but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment gradated women the right to vote.

21. with what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A– The Wyoming Territory
B– The Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments
C– Abolitionists
D– Women’s suffrage


22. The word “ban” in line 3 most nearly means to
A– encourage
B– publish
C– prohibit
D– limit


23. The word “supported” in line 5 could best be replaced by
A– disregarded
B– acknowledged
C– contested
D– promoted


24. According to the passage, why did women become active in politics ?
A– to improve the conditions of life that existed at the time
B– To support Elizabeth Cady Stanton for president
C– To be elected to public office
D– To amend the Declaration of Independence


25. The word “primarily” in line 9 is closest in meaning to
A– above all
B– somewhat
C– finally
D– always


26. What had occurred shortly after the Civil War ?
A– The Wyoming Territory was admitted to the Union
B– A women’s suffrage bill was introduced in Congress
C– The eastern states resisted the end of the war
D– Black people were granted the right to vote.


27. The word “suffrage” in line 12 could best be replaced by which of the following ?
A– pain
B– citizenship
C– freedom from bondage
D– the right to vote


28. What does the Nineteenth Amendment guarantee ?
A- Voting rights for blacks
B– Citizenship for blacks
C– Voting rights for women
D– Citizenship for women


29. The word “it” in line 16 refers to
A– bill
B- Congress
C– Nineteenth Amendment
D– vote


30. When were women allowed to vote throughout the United States ?
A– after1866
B– After 1870
C– After 1878
D– After 1920

 

Questions from 31 - 40
 

Fertilizer is any substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical elements essential for plant nutrition. Natural substances such as animal droppings and straw have been used as fertilizers for thousands of years, and lime has been used as fertilizers for thousands of years, and lime has been used since the Romans introduced it during the Empire. It was not until the nineteenth century, in fact, that chemical fertilizers became popular. Today, both natural and synthetic fertilizers are available in a variety of forms.

                  A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three numbers, such as 4-8-2 or 3-6-4, which designate the percentage content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash in the order stated.

Synthetic fertilizers are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules are popular because they are easy to store and apply. Recently, liquids have shown an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizer used throughout the world. Formerly, powders were also used, but these were found to be less convenient than either solids or liquids.

Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumer as long as they are used according to recommendations based on the results of local research Occasionally, however, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, damaging not only the crop but also the animals or humans that eat it. Accumulations of fertilizer in the water supply accelerate the growth of algae and, consequently, may disturb the natural cycle of life, contributing to the death of fish. Too much fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders in cattle and in infants who drink cow’s milk.

 


31. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned ?
A– Local research and harmful effects of fertilizer
B– Advantages and disadvantages of liquid fertilizer
C– A formula for the production of fertilizer
D– Content, form, and effects of fertilizer


32. The word “essential” in line 2 could best be replaced by which of the following ?
A– limited
B– preferred
C– anticipated
D– required


33. In the formula 3-6-4
A– the content of nitrogen is greater than that of potash
B– the content of potash is greater than that of phosphoric acid
C– the content of phosphoric acid is less than that of nitrogen
D– the content of nitrogen is less than that of phosphoric


34. Which of the following has the smallest percentage content in the formula 4-8-2 ?
A– Nitrogen
B– Phosphorus
C– Acid
D– Potash


35. What is the percentage of nitrogen in a 5-8-7 formula fertilizer ?
A– 3 percent
B– 5 percent
C– 7 percent
D– 8 percent


36. The word “designate” in line 8 could be replaced by
A– modify
B– specify
C– limit
D– increase


37. Which of the following statements about fertilizer is true ?
A– Powder are more popular than ever.
B– Solids are difficult to store.
C– Liquids are increasing in popularity
D– Chemical granules are difficult to apply .


38. The word “these ” in line 13 refers to
A– powders
B– solids
C– liquids
D– fertilizer


39. The word “convenient” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A- effective
B– plentiful
C– easy to use
D– cheap to produce


40. What happens when too much fertilizer is used ?
A Local research teams provide recommendations.
B- Algae in the water supplies begin to die
C– Animals and humans may become ill.
D– Crops have no harmful effects.

 

Questions from 41 - 50
  In 1626, Peter Minuit, governor of the Dutch settlements in North America known as New Amsterdam, negotiated with Canarsee Indian chiefs for the purchase of Manhattan Island for merchandise valued at sixty guilders or about $24.12. He purchased the island for the Dutch West India Company.
The next year, For Amsterdam was built by the company at the extreme southern tip of the island. Because attempts to encourage Dutch immigration were not immediately successful, offers, generous by the standards of the era, were extended throughout Europe. Consequently, the settlement became the most heterogeneous of the North American colonics. By 1637, the for had expanded into the village of New Amsterdam, and other small communities had grown up around it, including New Haarlem and Stuyvesant Bowery, and New Amsterdam began to prosper, developing characteristics of religious and linguistic tolerance unusual for the times. By 1643, it was reported that eighteen different languages were heard in New Amsterdam alone.
Among the multilingual settlers was a large group of English colonists from Connecticut and Massachusetts who supported the English King’s claim to all of New Netherlands set out in a charter that gave the territory to his brother James, the Duck of York . In 1664, when the English sent a formidable fleet of warships into the New Amsterdam harbour, Dutch governor Peter Stuyvesant surrendered without resistance.
When the English acquired the island, the village of New Amsterdam was renamed New York in honor of the Duke. By onset of the Revolution, New York City was already a bustling commercial center. After the war, it was selected as the first capital of the United State. Although the government was eventually moved, first to Philadelphia and then to Washington, D.C., New York City has remained the unofficial commercial capital.
During the 1690s, New York became a haven for pirates who conspired with leading merchants to exchange supplies for their ships in return for a share in the plunder. As a colony, New York exchanged many agricultural products for English manufactured goods. In addition, trade with the West Indies prospered. Three centuries after his initial trade with the Indians, Minuit’s tiny investment was worth more than seven billion dollars.


41. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage ?
A– a History of New York City
B– An Account of the Dutch Colonies
C– A Biography of Peter Minuit
D– The First Capital of the United States


42. What did the Indians receive in exchange for their island ?
A– sixty Dutch guilders
B- $24.12 U.S.
C– Goods and supplies
D– Land in New Amsterdam


43. Where was New Amsterdam located ?
A- in Holland
B– In North America
C– On the island of Manhattan
D– In India


44. The word “Heterogeneous” in line 8 could best be replaced by
A– liberal
B– renowned
C– diverse
D– prosperous


45. why were so many languages spoken in New Amsterdam ?
A– The Dutch West India Company was owned by England .
B– The Dutch West India Company allowed freedom of speech.
C– The Dutch West India Company recruited settlers from many different countries in Europe.
D– The Indians who lived there before the Dutch West India Company purchase spoke many languages


46. The word “formidable” in line 17 is closest in meaning to
A– Powerful
B– modern
C– expensive
D– unexpected


47. The name of New Amsterdam was changed
A– to avoid a war with England
B– to honor the Duke of York
C– to attract more English colonists from Connecticut and Massachusetts
D– to encourage trade during the 1690s


48. The word “it” in line 21 refers to
A– Revolution
B– New York City
C– the island
D– the first capital


49. Which city was the first capital of the new United States ?
A– New Amsterdam
B– New York
C– Philadelphia
D– Washington


50. On what date was Manhattan valued at $7 billion ?
A– 1626
B– 1726
C– 1656
D– 1926

Score =


End of the test نهاية اختبار التوفل

Test ID: TOFL-1 نموذج الاجابات عودة لمركز اختبارات التوفل عودة لمركز الاختبارات
لتحميل الاختبار على جهازك