Test ID: TOFL-2 نموذج الاجابات عودة لمركز اختبارات التوفل عودة لمركز الاختبارات
title أختبار توفل تجريبي 2 - TOFEL TEST 2 العنوان
Tips هذا الاختبار نسخة مطابقة اسلوبا ومضمونا لاختبار التوفل والفرق الوحيد انك نهاية الاختبار ستحصل على نتيجة نسبية ما بين 0 -ى 100 ملاحظات
Instructions اتبع التعليمات واقرائها بتركيز من بداية الاختبار الى نهايته و تذكر انه لا يسمح لك بالكتابة او اخذ اي ملاحظات تعليمات
الملاحظات و الإستفسارات حول المركز موضوع مناقشة الإختبار و التدريبات الإضافية

The beginning of the test بداية اختبار التوفل

  قم بتشغيل الملف الصوتي واتبع التعليمات للاجابة على الاسئلة
من 1 الى 30

In this section of the test , you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversation and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test, when you take the actual TOEFL test you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book try to work on this model test in the same way .

 

Part A

Directions: In part A , you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversation and questions will not be repeated, after you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then , on your answer  sheet , find the number of the question and fill in the space that correspond to the letter of the answer you have chosen.


1.
A– She enjoys summer the most.
B– She’s too busy to go traveling.
C– She gets bored staying home too long.
D– She doesn’t like to travel.

2.
A– Building houses is very complicated.
B– he lent his other book to a friend.
C– This book doesn’t have enough details.
D– He needs the information in this book.


3.
A– He left his lab and went on vacation.
B– He locked his lab.
C– He came back to work early.
D– he went to give a lecture.


4.
A– Connie and David have changed.
B– David wants to talk to Connie.
C– Connie and David are planning a trip
D– Connie and David have many friends.


5.
A– She used to work for the city.
B– She enjoys sightseeing in the city.
C– She thinks there are two buildings
D– She has visited the museum more than once


6.
A– She is unhappy with her work.
B- She wonders what job the man does.
C– She doesn’t know what the man means.
D– She agrees to work on another day.


7.
A– He thinks Greg is too young.
B– He thinks it’s a good decision.
C– He is surprised.
D– He is angry.


8.
A– Sandy wants to room with the woman.
B– Sandy is very interesting person.
C– Sandy doesn’t want to bother anyone.
D– Sandy is the woman’s roommate.


9.
A– The complete movie was not shown.
B– She went to sleep during the movie
C– The end surprised everyone
D– She wants to see the movie again tonight


10.
A- She already has tickets for both of them.
B– She’s trying to fool him .
C– She thinks it’s going to be hard to get tickets.
D– She doesn’t want to get tickets, because they might have to stay home.


11.
A– Come back again to apply for the job.
B– think about whether he really wants to resign.
C– Get some training before he quits his job.
D– Apply for an additional part-time job.


12.
A- Alex wants to change his major.
B– Alex is still too young to make his own decision.
C– Alex should not change his major without consent from his parents.
D– Alex is capable of making his own decision.


13.
A- ‘He’ll make an effort to go tonight.
B– He doesn’t like commitments.
C– He remembered he had to go to the group meeting.
D– He has to go somewhere else.


14.
A– There is nothing that worries him.
B– He didn’t do any studying.
C– He studies very hard.
D– He was bored.


15.
A– Laura doesn’t understand the proposal.
B– Laura will not like the proposal.
C– Laura accepted this proposal.
D- Laura’s proposal is excellent.


16.
A– She doesn’t want a long drive to the airport.
B– She will hang her luggage in the closet.
C– She won’t use the same airline again this time.
D– She isn’t used to traveling very much .


17.
A– You can’t eat the fruit whole.
B– You can’t eat the pit.
C– You can’t eat the fruit raw.
D– You can’t eat the skin of the fruit.


18.
A– he is the best student in the class.
B– He’ll have to take exam again.
C– He passed the exam with the grade he expected.
D– His grade was not as high as he had hoped.


19.
A– They are studying hard for their finals.
B– The school year seemed to go by very quickly.
C– They’ve been in school a few weeks.
D– Even though finals are over, they still have to study for a few weeks.


20.
A– His shoulder hurts.
B-His eyes are dim.
C- He likes the ice in the lake.
D– He wants another cold drink .

 

Part B

Directions: In this part of the test , you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation , you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question , read the four possible answer in your book and choose the best answer.

Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test pages.


21.
A– Finding books in the library
B– an exam in a class
C– a student’s research project
D– asking directions to a class


22.
A– in the mountains
B– in the southwest desert
C– in New York
D– on the Atlantic coast


23.
A– the southwestern desert
B– the end of the Anasazi civilization
C– native American history
D– desert climates


24.
A– There is another person studying a similar topic.
B– There are no books in the library about this particular topic.
C– She thinks the student should change his focus.
D– She has a lot of books on this topic for the student.


25.
A– Boston
B– San Francisco
C– New York
D– Milwaukee


26.
A– It is going to the wrong destination.
B– The departure times are not appropriate.
C– The train will arrive too late.
D– The ticket is too expensive.


27.
A– because it goes on to Boston
B– because it is slower
C– because there is no place to sleep
D– because it arrives in the middle of the night


28.
A- friends
B– sea birds
C– a trip
D- Fridays


29.
A– They are friends.
B– They have just met.
C– They are brother and sister.
D– They have a class together.


30.
A– to sit in the sun
B– to watch the waves
C– to observe sea birds
D– to have picnics


31.
A– Saturday
B– one year later
C– Friday
D– after the summer


32.
A– taking a vacation
B– going to sleep
C– seeing a movie
D– traveling to New York City


33.
A– in a restaurant
B– in an office
C– in a classroom
D– in a house


34.
A– She enjoys hiking.
B– her cousin has a cabin in Canada.
C– She wants to get away from the city.
D– She can’t afford to stay in a hotel.


35.
A– The car needs to be fixed.
B– They need to work the next day.
C– Their flight doesn’t leave until the next day.
D- the weather is very bad that night.


Part C

Directions: In this part of the test , you will hear several short talks . After each talk , you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question , read the four possible answer in your book and choose the best answer.

36.
A– a magazine
B– a neighbourhood
C– a period of time
D– a political issue


37.
A– before World War I
B– in the 1950s
C– in the 190s
D– after 1985


38.
A– new viral discoveries
B– a brief history of 19th-century France
C– a movement toward world peace
D– the life and ties of Shakespeare


39.
A– American Revolutionary period
B– world history 
C– journalism
D– economics


40.
A– to inform people of the zoo show times
B– to announce the zoo will close soon
C– to advertise goods sold at the gift shop
D– to promote a restaurant serving lunch at the zoo


41.
A– lions and tigers
B– elephants and giraffes
C– sharks and rays
D– apes and monkeys


42.
A– the giant bird cage
B– the tiger house
C– the monkey and ape habitat
D– the tropical rainforest exhibit


43.
A– at the main entrance
B– in the gift shop
C– from Dr. Smith
D– at the primate center


44.
A– American history
B– twentieth-century poets
C– Shakespeare
D– Abraham Lincoln


45.
A– the date when the Civil War ended
B– the date when the first exam will take place
C– the date when the paper is due
D– the date when Abraham Lincoln died


46.
A– the end of the Civil war
B– the speech by Abraham Lincoln
C– the conditions in the southern states
D– the beginning of the war between the states


47.
A– music
B– literature 
C– dance
D– painting


48.
A– Handel
B– the Messiah
C– the London Philharmonic
D– the symphony


49.
A– the educational level of artists has increased
B– the size of the audience has grown
C– the number of voices and instruments has changed.
D– the types of visitors have changed.


50.
A– Christmas
B– New Year’s Day
C– Easter
D– the summer solstice

 


Section 2: Structure and Written Expression

40 questions 25 Minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two type of questions in this section , with special directions for each type

1. America’s first globe maker was James Wilson, who ………. And blacksmith in his earlier life.
A– a farmer had been
B– had been a farmer
C– farming
D– being a farmer


2. Napoleon ………. The West Indian island of Santo Domingo in 1801.
A– attacked
B– is attacking
C– has attacked
D– attacking


3. Modern industrial methods have supplanted individual crafts, ……… stone cavers, coopers, and cobblers virtually extinct.
A– make blacksmiths,
B– made blacksmiths,
C– making them blacksmiths,
D– making blacksmiths,


4. Not only knowledge and skills, but also attitudes …….. In school for students’ future adjustment to society .
A– when cultivated
B– cultivated
C– which need to be cultivated
D– need to be cultivated


5. On Mercator’s maps, the far northern and southern polar regions are ……….. .
A– greatly exaggerated in area.
B– exaggerating greatly in area.
C– greatly exaggerate in area .
D– great exaggeration in area.


6. On the slope of Long’s Peak in Colorado ……….. The ruin of a gigantic tree .
A– that lies
B– lies
C– where lies
D– lie


7. …….. In Shanghai than in any other city in China.
A– More people live
B– More people living
C– it has more people
D– More living people


8. The earth spins on its axis and ……….. 23 hours, 56 minutes and 4.09 seconds for one complete rotation.
A– need
B– needed
C– needing
D– needs


9. …….. on the environment for the gratification of its needs.
A– Each organism to depend
B– Every organism depends
C– All organisms depending
D– Many organisms can depends


10. Of Charles Dickens’ many novels, Great Expectations is perhaps ……….. To many readers. 
A– the most satisfying one
B– most satisfying one
C– more than satisfying one
D– the more satisfying than


11. ……….. , the nation’s capital remained in philadelphia , Pennsylvania
A– While designing Washington, D.C.
B-Washington, D.., was designed
C– While Washington, D.C., was being designed
D– Washington, D.C., designed


12. Children learn primarily by ………. The world around them.
A– experiencing directly of
B– experience direct
C– directly physical experience
D– direct physical experience of


13. It is earth’s gravity that ……….. People their weight.
A– gives
B– give
C– giving
D– given


14. Generally speaking, people should have ………… as their desires will allow.
A– much education
B– as much education
C– education
D– for education


15. A dolphin six ……… length can move as fast as most ships.
A– foot in
B– feet in
C– foot of
D– feet of


Written Expression

Directions: In questions 16-40 , Each sentence has four underline words or phrases . The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) or (D). Identify the one underlined words or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.

 

16. Cotton used to rank first between Alabama’s crops, but it represents only a fraction of the agricultural production now.
A– Cotton
B– rank
C– between
D– represents only


17. Salmon lay their eggs and die in freshwater, although they live in salt water when most of their adult lives.
A– lay
B– although
C– when
D– adult lives


18. To building their nests, tailorbirds use their bills as needles.
A– building
B– nests
C– their
D– as


19. fountain pens first became commercial available about a hundred years ago.
A– first
B– commercial
C– about
D– ago


20. With its strong claws and its many protruding tooth a gopher is an excellent digger.
A– With
B– strong claws
C– protruding tooth
D– is


21.  Drug addiction has resulted of many destroyed careers, and expulsions from school or college.
A– has
B– of
C– destroyed
D– expulsions


22. Because of the Lewis and Clark Expedition, the Untied States begin to realize the true value of the Louisiana territory.
A– Because
B– begin
C– the true value
D– territory


23. Americans annually import more than $3 billion worthy of Italian clothing, Jewry, and shoes.
A– Americans
B– more
C– worthy
D– clothing


24. Akuce Ganuktibm, she spent her life working with the health and welfare of the families of workers.
A– she
B– her life
C– welfare
D– the


25. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A– There are
B– of comparing
C– those
D– another


26. Male guppies, like many other male is, are more color than females.
A– Male
B– like
C– are
D– color


27. When rhinos take mud baths, the mud create a barrier to biting insects.
A– When
B– the
C– create
D– biting


28. Benjamin Franklin, as an inventor, he had broad interests, mechanical skills, persistence, and a practical view of life.
A– as an
B– he
C– persistence
D– of


29. In the stock market, the fluctuations in Standard and poor’s 500 Index does not always conform to Dow Jones Averages.
A– In
B– does
C– always
D– to


30. A jellyfish, which isn’t really a fish, it has no brain, no bones, and no face.
A– isn’t
B– a
C– it
D– bones


31. International trade, going travelling, and television have lain the groundwork for modern global life styles.
A– going travelling
B– have lain
C– for
D– styles


32. The most visible remind of the close relationship between the United States and France is the famous Statue of liberty, which stands in New York harbour.
A– remind
B– between
C– is
D– which


33. Until diamonds are cut and polished, they just like look small blue-grey stones.
A– Until
B– cut and polished
C– like look
D– stones


34. Jackie Robinson, whose joined the Brooklyn Dodgers in 1947, was the first black American to play baseball in the major leagues.
A– whose
B– was
C– to play
D– the


35. Laser technology is the heart of a new generation of high-speed copiers and printers.
A– is
B– a
C– generation
D– printer


36. Fertilize farmland is one of the biggest natural resources in the Central states.
A– Fertilize
B– one
C– biggest
D– in


37. The symptoms of diabetes in the early stages are too slight that people don’t notice them.
A– symptoms
B– the
C– too
D– them


38. Gone with the wind written after Margaret Mitchell quit her job as a reporter because of an ankle injury.
A– written
B– quit
C– as
D– of


39. with a policy of eminent domain, the state has control ultimate of all real property.
A– policy
B– the
C– control ultimate
D– real


40. Hay fever symptoms, ranged from mild to sever, differ in degree according to the individual
A– ranged
B– to
C– differ
D– according

 

Section3: Reading Comprehension

A50 Question 55 Minutes
Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer to each question.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage

Questions from 1 - 12
 

Martin   Luther King, Jr., is well known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches, among them his moving "I Have A Dream" speech. But fewer people know much about King's childhood. ML., as he was called, was born in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.'s grandfather, the Reverend A.D. Williams, purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before Mt. was born. The Reverend Williams, an eloquent speaker, played an important role in the community since so many people's lives centered around the church. He allowed his church and his home to be used as a meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in this atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.

        Mt.'s childhood was not especially eventful. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all-black schools in a black neighbourhood. The neighbourhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was the main artery through a prosperous neighbourhood that had come to symbolize achievement for Atlanta's black people. It was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewellers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other black-owned or black-operated businesses and services. Even in the face of Atlanta's segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a seemingly insurmountable barrier that kept black Atlanta's from mingling with whites.

 

 
   

1. What is this passage mainly about ?
A– the prejudice that existed in Atlanta
B– Martin Luther King’s childhood
C– M.L.’s grandfather
D– the neighbourhood king grew up in


2. The word “eloquent” in line 5 means most nearly
A– powerful
B– active
C– romantic
D– fascinating


3. the word “gathering” in line 9 could best be replaced by
A– picking
B– learning
C– exciting 
D– meeting


4. As used in line 10 , the word “eventful” is closest in meaning to which of the following ?
A– valued
B– memorable
C– admirable
D– emotional


5. In line 13 , the word “it” refers to which of the following ?
A– achievement
B– neighbourhood
C– segregation
D– services


6. According to the author, blacks in king’s neighbourhood were involved in all the following businesses and services EXCEPT
A– dentistry
B– medicine
C– law
D– banking


7. The word “ tailors ” in line 14 describes people who are associated with which of the following trades ?
A– flower arranging
B– shoe making
C– garment making
D– book binding


8. According the author, King was influenced by
A– community spirit
B– black lawyers
C– his mother
D– his speeches


9. The word “thrived” in line 15 refers to which of the following ?
A– achieved
B– surrendered
C– flourished
D– held


10. As used I line 17, which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “seemingly” ?
A– apparently
B– inevitably
C– inexplicably
D– hastily


11. The word “mingling” in line 17 could best be replaced by which of the following ?
A– interfering
B– gargling
C– consuming
D– associating

12. According to the author, ML
A– had a difficult childhood
B– was a good musician
C– loved to listen to his grandfather speak
D– grew up in a relatively


Questions from 13 - 24
  Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the main source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods. Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugars such as amylose and amylopectin. Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one-fourth to one-fifth of a person's diet. This translates to about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day.
      A diet that is
deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person's health. When the body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates it must then use its protein supplies for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis. This, however, results in a lack of necessary protein, and further health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a build-up of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath.
 
 

13. What is the main idea of this passage ?
A– Carbohydrates are needed for good health.
B– Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins.
C– Carbohydrate can lead to ketosis.
D– Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet.


14. The word “function” as used in line 2 refers to which of the following ?
A– neglect
B– serve
C– dissolve
D– profess


15. The word “range” as used in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following ?
A– probe
B– proceed
C– hail
D– extend


16. In line 3, the word “estimate” could best be replaced by
A– disbelieve
B– declare
C– calculate
D– wonder


17. According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest ?
A– Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis.
B– Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose.
C– Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person’s daily diet.
D– Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities.


18. Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do ?
A– prevent ketosis
B– cause gluconeogenesis
C– provide energy for the body
D– flavour and sweeten food


19. Which of the following words could best replace “deficient” as used in line 6 ?
A– outstanding
B– abundant
C– insufficient
D– unequal


20. What does the word “this” refer to in line 8 ?
A– using protein supplies for energy
B– Converting carbohydras to energy
C– having a deficiency in carbohydrates
D– having an insufficient amount of protein


21. According to the passage , which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates ?
A– a protein supply
B– a necessity
C– a range of sugars
D– an energy source


22. The word “lack” in line 9 is most similar to which of the following ?
A– plethora
B– shortage
C– derivation
D– commission


23. Which of the following best describes the author’s tone ?
A– sensitive
B– emotional
C– informative
D– regretful


24. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage ?
A– cause and result
B– comparison
C– specific to general
D– definition and example


Questions from 24 - 36
  Alter two decades of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the United States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard's MBA School has shown a substantial increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their enrollments. Since 1990, the number of people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA) degrees, has dropped about 3 percent to 75,000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to continue.
      There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on Wall Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entry-level management jobs are going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as those holding MBA degrees. Students have asked the question, "Is an MBA degree reallywhat I need to be best prepared for getting a good job?" The second major factor has been the cutting of Arnerican payrolls and the lower number of entry-level jobs being offered. Business needs are changing, and MBA schools are struggling to meet the new demands.
 

25. What is the main focus of this passage ?
A– jobs on Wall Street
B– types of graduate degrees
C– changes in enrolment for MBA schools
D– how schools are changing to reflect the economy


26. The phrase “two decades” in line 1 refers to a period of
A– 10 years 
B– 20 years
C– 50 years
D– 100 years


27. The word “prosperity” in line 1 could be best replaced by which of the following ?
A– success
B– surplus
C– nurturing
D– education


28. Which of the following business schools has NOT shown a decrease in enrolment ?
A– Princeton
B– Harvard
C– Stanford
D- Yale


29. The phrase “trend of” in line 5 is closet in meaning to which of the following ?
A– reluctance of
B– drawback to 
C– movement toward
D– extraction from


30. As used in line 7 , the word “seeking” could best be replaced by which of the following ?
A- examining
B– avoiding
C– seizing
D– pursuing


31. Which of the following descriptions most likely applies to Wall Street ?
A– a center for international affairs
B– a major financial center
C– a shopping district
D– a neighbourhood in New York


32. The word “plush” in line 8 most probably means
A– legal
B– satisfactory
C– fancy
D– dependable


33. According to the passage , what are two causes of declining business school enrolments ?
A– lack of necessity for an MBA and an economic recession
B– low salary and foreign competition
C– fewer MBA schools and fewer entry-level jobs
D– declining population and economic prosperity


34. The word “cutting” in line 12 could best be replaced by which of the following ?
A– wounding
B– reducing
C– diving
D– carving


35. As used in line 14, the word “struggling” is closest in meaning to
A– evolving
B– plunging
C– starting
D– striving


36. Which of the following might be the topic of the next paragraph ?
A– MBA schools’ efforts to change
B– Future economic predications
C– a history of the recent economic changes
D– descriptions of non-MBA graduate programs


Questions from 37 - 48
  A pilot cannot fly a plane by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of radion waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar set and other objects. The word "radar," in fact, gets its name from the term "radio detection and ranging." "Ranging" is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.
 

37. What is the main topic of this passage ?
A– the nature of radar
B– types of ranging
C– alterative to radar
D– history of radar


38. In line 1 , the word “dense” could be replaced by
A– cold
B– wet
C– dark
D– thick


39. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects ?
A– size
B– weight
C– speed
D– shape


40. The word “shouts” in line 4 is most similar in meaning to which of the following ?
A– eavesdrops
B– yells
C– confesses
D– whispers


41. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage ?
A– argumentative
B– imaginative
C– explanatory
D– humorous


42. he phrase “a short burst” in line 7 is closest in meaning in which of the following ?
A– an attachment
B– a discharge
C– a stream
D– a ray


43. The word “it” in line 7 refers to which of the following ?
A– a radar set
B– a short burst
C– a radion wave
D– light


44. Which of the following could best replace the word “bounce” in line 8 ?
A– overturn
B– grove
C– extend 
D– rebound


45. Which type of waves does radar use ?
A– sound
B– heat
C– radio
D– light


46. The word “tracking” in line 12 is closest in meaning to which of the following ?
A- repairing
B– searching for
C– glancing at
D– fighting


47. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph ?
A– other uses of radar
B– uses of sonar technology
C– other technology used by pilots
D– a history of flying


48. What might be inferred about radar ?
A– it takes the place of a radio.
B– it gave birth to the invention of the
C– it developed from a study of sound waves.
D– it has improved navigational safety .


Questions from 49 - 60
  Langston Hughes was one of the greatest American writers of the twentieth century. He was born in Joplin, Missouri, and moved to Cleveland at the age of fourteen. Several years later he spent one year in Mexico before attending Columbia University in New York. For a fewyears after that he roamed the world as a seaman, visiting ports around the world and writing some poetry. He returned to the United States and attended Lincoln University, where he won the Witter Bynner Prize for undergraduate poetry. After graduating in 1928, he traveled to Spain and to Russia with the help of a Guggenheim fellowship. His novels include Not Without Laughter (1930) and The Big Sea (1940). He wrote an autobiography in 1956 and also published several collections of poetry. The collections include The Weary Blues (1926), The Dream Keeper (1932), Shakespeare in Harlem (1942), Fields of Wonder (1947), One Way Ticket (1947), and Selected Poems (1959). A man of many talents, Hughes was also a lyricist, librettist, and a journalist. As an older man in the 1960s he spent much of his time collecting poems from Africa and from African-Americans to popularize black writers. Hughes is one of the most accomplished writers in American literary history, and he is seen as one of the artistic leaders of the Harlem Renaissance, the period when a neighborhood that was predominantly black produced a flood of great literature, music, and other art forms depicting daily city life for African-Americans.
 

49. What is the main topic of this passage ?
A– the life of Langston Hughes
B– the Harlem renaissance
C– African-American Writers
D– American twentieth-century writers


50. What is the main topic of this passage ?
A– the life of Langston Hughes
B– the Harlem Renaissance
C- African-American writers
D– American twentieth-century writers


51. The word “roamed” as used in line 3 is closet in meaning to which of the following ?
A– travelled
B– soared 
C– floated
D– walked


52. As used in line 4, which of the following words could best replace the word “ports” ?
A– islands
B– ships
C– friends 
D– harbors


53. To which of the following movements might Shakespeare in Harlem refer to ?
A– the Civil War
B– the Harlem
C– the Harlem Renaissance
D– the Civil Rights Movement


54. What provided Hughes with assistance for his travel to Spain and Russia ?
A– his job as a reporter
B– his career as a soldier
C– a literary fellowship
D– a college study program


55. The word “talents” in line 10 could be be replaced by which of the following ?
A– desires
B– abilities
C– strategies
D– careers


56. According to the author, what did Hughes do during the later years of his life ?
A– write short stories
B– popularize African-American writers
C– advocate racial equality
D– write about life in Harlem


57. Which of the following could best replace the word “accomplished” as used in line 12 ?
A- successful
B- prolific
C- brilliant
D- imaginative


58. The author uses the word “flood” in line 14 to refer to
A- a drought
B- an outpouring
C- a cloudburst
D- a streak


59. Which of the following can best substitute for the word “depicting” in line 15 ?
A- congratulating
B- congratulating
C- screening
D- portraying


60. According to the passage, Langston Hughes was all of the following EXCEPT
A- a novelist
B- a poet
C- an historian
D- a journalist

Score =


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